Tag «john»
Why is the prophecy of the end times given to Daniel instructed to be sealed, while the one given to John is not?
But you, Daniel, roll up and seal the words of the scroll until the time of the end. Many will go here and there to increase knowledge.” (Daniel 12:4 NIV)
Then he told me, “Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this scroll, becaus…
Does God Have A Future A Pentecostal Response To Christopher Halls And John Sanders Recent Book
PNEUMA_f9_130-137 2/27/06 17:12 Page 130 Pentecostal Theology, Volume 26, No. 1, Spring 2004 S SP Review Essay Does God Have a Future? A Pentecostal…
Should John 1:18 read “the only begotten God”?
I was reading my New King James version of the Bible and found a footnote for this verse:
John 1:18 (NKJV)
No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
The footn…
John 6:39 and Jesus’ Confidence
I’ve done a decent amount of study from theologians and teachers of the Word regarding John 6:37-40, I’ve even studied it apart from the teachers. It seems most apparent and obvious that Jesus will succeed in losing none out of all that t…
(John 15:22) No sin without Jesus?
I am really scratching my head on this verse.
John 15:22, “If I [Jesus] had not come and spoken to them, they would not have sin; but now they have no excuse for their sin.”
It seems from the context just before this that the “them” and …
how do we reconcile John 8:14 & 5:31
John 8:14 New International Version
14 Jesus answered, “Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid, for I know where I came from and where I am going. But you have no idea where I come from or where I am going.
John 5:31 -…
What is the difference in eating and drinking in John 6:53 and 6:54?
The instruction to drink the blood of the Son of Man is first given in John 6:53:
εἶπεν οὖν αὐτοῖς ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, ἐὰν μὴ φάγητε τὴν σάρκα τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καὶ πίητε αὐτοῦ τὸ αἷμα, οὐκ ἔχετε ζωὴν ἐν ἑαυτοῖς [NA 28]
Mo…
The Trinitarian Formula in 1 John 5:7–8
One of the ongoing attacks on modern translations has to do with the Trinitarian formula in 1 John 5:7–8. The accusation is that…
Why does John use a double “Verily, verily,” (John 1:53, et al.) when the other Gospel writers use only one?
"Verily I say unto you" is common in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but John consistently uses the double "Verily, verily (Gk.amen, amen). (3:3, 3:5, 3:11, 5:19, 5:24, 25, 6:26, 32, 47, 53, 8:34, 51, 58, 10:1, 7, 12:24, 13:16, et …